Quote:
Originally Posted by Rain Man
This seems logical, but it makes me wonder about loopholes.
The logic is that all income goes into the marital pool and is divided equally, regardless of which spouse produced that income. So does the same thing apply to expenditures? It seems like one spouse could purchase something that benefits only themselves and can't be sold or split, such as a trip to Tahiti or liposuction or something, and the other spouse essentially pays half of it. If the argument is made that the assets are split regardless of source, then an expenditure on an asset that isn't tangible just reduces the assets to be split.
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I believe I saw where a woman had to pay her ex back for her plastic surgery.