I feel like when he signed his deal they stated that he couldn't be punished contractually for any event that occurred prior to him signing that contract.
How could Watson disclose an accusation that hasn't been made yet prior to signing a contract?
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Did Watson disclose this specific potential claim to the Browns in writing before he signed the contract? That’s the key question. If he did, the lawsuit can’t activate paragraph 42. If he didn’t, things get potentially complicated.
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