Originally Posted by mr. tegu
I am not trying to troll, just understand, so bare with me. If you are not a criminal, and a law only applies to a criminal, how does that restrict you as a law abiding citizen?
This is the best analogy I can come up with at the moment to help illustrate my question. We have 18 and older laws to buy tobacco. Underage people will still get the tobacco of course. But if you are over 18, that law doesn't affect you, therefore that restriction has no meaning to you. Likewise, if you aren't a criminal, that law for criminals wouldn't affect you. I guess what I am saying is that if you go to purchase a gun and aren't a criminal, all potential laws associated with being a criminal will not come into play. Does that make sense? Or am I seeing things wrong?
...because criminals are substantially less likely to follow gun laws than law abiding gun owners intending to use them in a responsible way.