Originally Posted by DJ's left nut
'Oversampling' isn't a perjorative, it's a term of art.
If you believe more Democrats will vote than Republicans, you include more of them in your sample. You have therefore oversampled Democrats. Oversampling is nothing more than a relative term; how much of one you have over the other taking a 50/50 baseline.
What the pollsters did was not a slant, it was a projection.
Seems pretty simple to me.
Pollsters don't choose the number of Democrats or Republicans to include in their sample. That is a fluid, outcome variable just like which candidate people support.
Homer: [looking at watch] Two hours? Why'd they build this ghost town so far away?
Lisa: Because they discovered gold over there!
Homer: It's because they're stupid, that's why. That's why everybody does everything.