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Old 01-18-2013, 08:37 AM   #11
BucEyedPea BucEyedPea is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by WhiteWhale View Post
Why do people always drag Hitler into gun arguments?
Because he went after guns. Stalin could be used as a substitute if you prefer, though.

Quote:
Hitler encouraged private gun ownership. He removed gun restrictions and facilitated gun ownership. He wasn't scared of his people... they elected him with 94% majority vote.

Guns were not banned in Nazi Germany.
I wouldm't claim Hitler facilitated gun ownership either—he had severe restrictions on them and the "right" people only could have them.

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Hitler imposed gun control on Jews. This is a matter of record. The thought of a bunch of Jews owning guns really upset him. The man was intolerant of Jews with guns. - Gary North
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Gun registration was part of a program of gun control.
“In 1928, the Reichstag relaxed the regulation a bit, but put in place a strict registration regime that required citizens to acquire separate permits to own guns, sell them or carry them.
You can see those laws here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gun_politics_in_Germany

1919 Germany -Regulations on Weapons Ownership, declared "all firearms, as well as all kinds of firearms ammunition, are to be surrendered immediately." Under the regulations, anyone found in possession of a firearm or ammunition was subject to five years' imprisonment and a fine of 100,000 marks.

August 7, 1920 Germany - second gun-regulation law called the Law on the Disarmament of the People. Put limit on military-type weapons subject to Versailles Treaty.[BTW the left-wing Weimar Republic was hated by the people so not surprised at this law. The left-wing Weimar Republic had similar views that the left holds on guns too. ]

1928- Relaxed gun laws somewhat, while enacting a strict firearm licensing scheme. Records with information about who purchased guns and the guns' serial numbers which were delivered to a police authority for inspection at the end of each year.
This is what you need to look at:
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As everyone with any knowledge of German history in the 1920s knows, the Nazis ignored this law. In 1933, they took over. They suppressed all dissent. How? Because they were armed, while the rest of the population wasn’t. Is there cause and effect here? Salon does not mention this causal sequence. It’s clearly irrelevant, assuming you are a gun control promoter along Weimar lines.- Gary North http://lewrockwell.com/north/north1249.html
Prior to 1938 officials of the central government, the states, and employees of the German Reichsbahn Railways were exempted. [ The right people=the state.]

1938 German Weapons Act-Restricted ownership of firearms to "...persons whose trustworthiness is not in question and who can show a need for a (gun) permit."Jews were forbidden from the manufacturing or dealing of firearms and ammunition.

November 11, 1938 - Regulations Against Jews' Possession of Weapons. Applied to newly conquered Austria and Sudetenland,deprived all Jews living in those locations of the right to possess firearms or other weapons.


I know people say there's not going to be "bans" but restricting guns, as seen with these laws, is just as bad. Especially when people who work for the state are exempt.
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