Originally Posted by FishingRod
If someone breaks into your house and murders you with a gun it is s gun related death. If you shoot the intruder before he shoots you, it is a gun related death. If a cop kills a crack head pointing a gun at him or trying to stab him with a sharp stick, it is a gun related statistic. Women are more likely to be shot and killed by a criminal than they are to kill the murderer. How shocking. Are women as likely as murderers to be armed? Are they as skilled with a weapon. Did they have advance notice or does the criminal generally get the first shot? If criminals are generally better armed, better skilled and the one imitating the violence does a 80-1 ratio seem surprising? Would women with even fewer firearms improve that statistic or would a better armed better trained female population lower it to 20-1.
Hmmm, let's put this logic in a scenario:
A rapist wants to rape a woman. He has been stalking 2 different women. He has learned one carries a gun and one does not.
Who do you think he is going to go for???
"Finally, anyone who uses the terms, irregardless, a whole nother, or all of a sudden shall be sentenced to a work camp."