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Old 04-23-2013, 04:38 PM   #34
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Quote:
Originally Posted by AustinChief View Post
No it didn't you ignorant piece of shit. You can believe it and say it all you want... but it won't make you correct, only more delusional.
Yes, it did. First of all, all of the Bill of Rights for most of American history were federal limitations. Not limitations on the state. So, when the 2nd Amend says that 'people have the right to keep and bear Arms' it's not saying, in its original meaning, that the state can't prohibit guns. A state was certainly able to do so. For most of American history, the meaning was intrinsically tied into federal limitations of state militias. In 1939, for example, in United States v. Miller, federal gun convictions against persons was okay because the guns targeted weren't for the purposes of a well-regulated militia.

Now perhaps you will know why Heller and McDonald were so notable.

Only after those two cases was it constitutionally proscribed that the 2nd Amendment was incorporated to personal rights of bearing arms totally unrelated to militias, and that states couldn't offend those rights.
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