http://msn.foxsports.com/mlb/story/R...pension-121111
Rosenthal's source has clarified that, though not a PED, he tested positive for something that violates the Steroid/PED policy, and that no one has ever tested positive for this substance in the history of MLB's testing program.
Quote:
The source described the test result as highly unusual, “never seen in the history of (baseball’s) drug-prevention program.”
“When it happened,” the source said, “everyone was just scratching their head.”
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So, if it is not a PED, and is not a recreational drug, and no one in baseball has ever tested positive for it before, but does trigger a violation of the steroid policy, what the hell is it?
The source went on to say:
Quote:
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There are highly unusual circumstances surrounding this case which will support Ryan's complete innocence and demonstrate that there was absolutely no intentional violation of the program. While Ryan has impeccable character and no previous history, unfortunately, because of the process we have to maintain confidentiality and are not able to discuss it any further, but we are confident that he will ultimately be exonerated.
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But, until someone other than Braun or someone being paid by Braun says that, I'll dismiss that as PR-speak.
Some people are thinking maybe he was positive for a masking agent, which is basically the same as testing positive for PED's as far as the rules are concerned, for obvious reasons. Others on the internet are thinking maybe he tested positive for a stimulant, which would be a 25-game suspension instead of a 50-game.