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On the contrary, if he had been running in the open field, pulled a hammy, fell down intentionally, and then let go of the ball, then you would be correct. He would have "intentionally" given himself up. Does that make sense, or do you want to continue to make yourself look foolish by arguing this point? |
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Thanks in advance. |
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Doesn't matter because jd is 1000x wrong on this. |
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Carry on. |
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There's a nifty extension for reddit called the Reddit Enhancement Suite that allows you to do a variety of nifty things. One of those things is to "tag" other users with little descriptions to help you remember who they are, what they're like, etc.
I kind of wish we had it here so that in times like this I could remember to just go "aww...look at the little special kid" and move on rather than trying to help him understand the rules. |
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Because it's pretty ****ing easy to comprehend that rule. "Falling to the ground with no effort to advance the ball." McCluster caught the ball and fell to the ground without making a "football move" to advance the ball. It's either an incomplete pass or a catch and down by that rule. There's no two ways about it besides a bunch of challenged readers trying to invent their own definition of the rule. But I'm done talking about a simple definition now. It was a year ago on a 2-14 team. |
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The ball came out and he was not touched. Fumble. Keep digging that hole... |
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If you wanna call it incomplete, fine.
But your falling and giving up excuse does not apply here. |
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