|
|
05-16-2008, 02:42 PM
|
#18 |
|
Distributor of Pain
Join Date: Nov 2004
Casino cash: $8644900
|
If they're intentionally fouling him without the ball, then it should be an intentional foul. I don't see why this should even be up for discussion.
I think fouling at the end of the game, intentionally, when a team is down and desperate should be an intentional foul as well. I always hated that these weren't in the rules.
__________________
"It is not enough that I succeed; everyone else must fail." |
|
Posts: 3,480
  |
|
|
|
Why isn't off-the-ball hack-a-Shaq totally illegal?
Threaded Mode